Craig Carter and I are having a discussion about gender-inclusive language in Bible translations. To summarize: Craig thinks that translators who use gender-inclusive language are doing so for invalid ideological (namely feminist) purposes; I think such translators are doing their best to produce an accurate, contemporary translation into the ever-changing English language. I have absolutely no evidence available to argue that the generic/inclusive masculine in English is falling out of style, so I am not sure how necessary gender-inclusive language is for modern English translations. My anecdotal experience tells me that gender inclusive language is becoming necessary. Craig's anecdotal experience tells him just the opposite. In other words, we have reached an impasse. Does anyone have statistical evidence on this matter?